Greeks Versus Gentiles in Romans
In the New Testament, particularly in Paul's letter to the Romans, the terms "Greeks" and "Gentiles" are often used interchangeably to refer to non-Jewish people [1, 4, 9]. However, a distinction can sometimes be observed, especially in the original Greek.
The Hebrew term goyim, usually translated as "Gentiles," generally refers to all nations except the Jews [3]. Over time, this term acquired negative connotations among Jews, who used it to express contempt for those outside their covenant privileges [3, 4]. In the New Testament, the Greek word Hellenes, meaning "Greek," frequently denotes any non-Jewish nation [3]. This usage likely arose from the widespread adoption of the Greek language and culture [4]. For example, Paul states in Romans 1:14, "I am detter both to the Grecians, and to the Barbarians, both to the wise men and vnto the vnwise" [2]. Here, "Grecians" (or "Greeks") represents a broad category of non-Jews [8].
While "Greek" often functions as a synonym for "Gentile" in the New Testament [1, 4, 9], there are instances where a more specific meaning is intended. "Greek" can refer to a person of Greek ethnicity, as seen in Acts 16:1-3 or 18:17 [1, 3]. In contrast, "Grecian" (or Hellenist) typically refers to a foreign Jew who spoke Greek, as opposed to a home Jew who lived in Palestine [1]. For instance, in Acts 11:20, the word "Grecians" should be understood as "Greeks," referring to the heathen Greeks of that city [1].
Paul's epistles, especially Romans, emphasize that God's salvation is available to both Jews and Gentiles without distinction [6]. In Romans 10:12, Matthew Henry notes that "there is no difference between Jews and Gentiles, but they stand upon the same level in point of acceptance with God" [6]. Paul argues that God "doth equally accept both upon gospel terms" [6]. This theological point underscores that whether one is ethnically Greek or broadly a Gentile, the message of the Gospel applies universally [5, 6]. The apostle Paul often used a rhetorical style called diatribe, engaging a hypothetical Jewish opponent to demonstrate that Jews, like Gentiles, are subject to God's judgment [7].
The use of "Greeks" and "Gentiles" in the New Testament thus reflects both a specific ethnic identity and a broader category encompassing all non-Jewish peoples, with the latter usage being particularly prominent in Paul's theological arguments for the universality of the Gospel [1, 3, 9].
Sources
- Easton's Bible Dictionary “Easton's Bible Dictionary: Greek — Found only in the New Testament, where a distinction is observed between "Greek" and "Grecian" (q.v.). The former is (1) a Greek by race (Acts 16:1-3; 18:17; Rom. 1:14), or (2) a Gentile as opposed to a Jew (Rom. 2:9, 10). The latter, meaning properly "one who speaks Greek," is a foreign Jew opposed to a home Jew who dwelt in Palestine. The word "Grecians" in Acts 11:20 should be "Greeks," denoting the heathen Greeks of that city, as rendered in the Revised Version according to the reading of the best manuscripts ("Hellenes").”
- Romans “Romans 1:14 (Geneva1599) — I am detter both to the Grecians, and to the Barbarians, both to the wise men and vnto the vnwise.”
- Easton's Bible Dictionary “Easton's Bible Dictionary: Gentiles — (Heb., usually in plural, goyim), meaning in general all nations except the Jews. In course of time, as the Jews began more and more to pride themselves on their peculiar privileges, it acquired unpleasant associations, and was used as a term of contempt. In the New Testament the Greek word Hellenes, meaning literally Greek (as in Acts 16:1, 3; 18:17; Rom. 1:14), generally denotes any non-Jewish nation.”
- Smith's Bible Dictionary “Smith's Bible Dictionary: Gentiles — (nations). All the people who were not Jews were so called by them, being aliens from the worship, rites and privileges of Israel. The word was used contemptuously by them. In the New Testament it is used as equivalent to Greek. This use of the word seems to have arisen from the almost universal adaption of the Greek language.”
- Romans “Romans 9:24 (Geneva1599) — Euen vs whome hee hath called, not of of the Iewes onely, but also of the Gentiles,”
- Romans (Nonconformist/Puritan) “Matthew Henry on Romans 10:12: The first words express the design of the apostle through these verses, that there is no difference between Jews and Gentiles, but they stand upon the same level in point of acceptance with God. In Jesus Christ there is neither Greek nor Jews, Col 3:11. God doth not save any nor reject any because they are Jews, nor because they are Greeks, but doth equally accept both upon gospel terms: There is no difference. For the proof of this he urges two arguments: - I. That God is the same to all: The same Lord over all is rich unto all. There is not one God to the Jews”
- Romans (Protestant academic) “Tyndale House on Romans 2:1: 2:1-5 You is singular in the Greek. Here, the you is a hypothetical complacent Jew, who feels superior to Gentiles and in no danger of judgment. Paul adopts a popular Hellenistic style called a diatribe, in which a writer tries to win over an audience to his views by portraying a debate between himself and a hypothetical opponent. • these very same things: Paul’s point is that Jews, like Gentiles, turn from God’s revelation to go their own way.”
- Romans (Baptist/Reformed) “John Gill on Romans 1:14: I am a debtor both to the Greeks, and to the Barbarians,.... The meaning is, that he was obliged by the call he had from God, the injunction that was laid upon him by him, and the gifts with which he was qualified, to preach the Gospel to all sorts of men; who are here distinguished into Greeks and Barbarians: sometimes by Greeks are meant the Gentiles in general, in opposition to the Jews; see Rom 1:16; but here they design only a part of the Gentiles, the inhabitants of Greece, in opposition to all the world besides; for the Greeks used to call all others that were ”
- 1 Corinthians (Protestant academic) “Tyndale House on 1 Corinthians 1:22: 1:22-24 Paul uses the words Greeks and Gentiles interchangeably to refer to non-Jews. 1:22 Unbelieving Jews wanted to see miraculous signs to validate the message (cp. Matt 12:38-39; 16:1-4; John 2:18, 23; 4:48). Greeks, renowned for their schools of philosophy, were only interested in human wisdom—i.e., philosophical reasoning.”